UOP PM586 final exam 2015

UOP PM586 final exam 2015

Question

1. In a strong matrix structure, employees take daily direction from:

Project manager only

Both, but the project manager has greater influence

Both, but the functional manager has greater influence

Functional manager only

2. If the schedule variance is positive and the cost variance is negative, the project’s status is:

Over budget and behind schedule

Under budget and ahead of schedule

Over budget and ahead of schedule

Under budget and behind schedule

3. Which category of projects would involve a large number of functional units where the workers may be assigned either part-time or full-time?

Special

Individual

Staff

Matrixed

4. Which type of chart provides the least “predictive” value?

PDM

ADM

PERT

Bar chart

5. Scope creep is generally the result of:

Too much detail in the specifications

Having too many levels in the WBS

Poorly defined SOW

Having the wrong people assigned to the project

6. Which of the following is the role of the PM rather than the role of the functional manager?

Where it will be done

How the work will be done

Who will do it

What work will be done

7. The balance between quality and cost is called:

Produceability

Salability

Availability

Operability

8. The EVMS term that represents the value of work actually accomplished is:

BAC

AC

EV

PV

9. Which of the following would be the first item to be discussed in the initial kickoff meeting for a project?

Understanding of the budget

Understanding of the schedule

Understanding of the requirements

Understanding of the plan

10. Quality is defined by the:

Project team

customer

Project manager

Project sponsor

11. Which of the following people has the greatest influence on how much authority a project manager will possess on a given project?

The project sponsor

The customer

The project manager’s line manager

 

The project manager himself / herself

UOP PM586 final exam 2015

WKU MKT220 FINAL EXAM FALL 2014 (50 QUESTIONS)

WKU MKT220 FINAL EXAM FALL 2014 (50 QUESTIONS)

QUESTION 1

Of the following choices, which would be the easiest brand name to legally protect?

a.  Western County Distributors

b. Tarzink Yogurt

c. Scout Camping Supplies

d. Sullivan Water Filtering Systems

e. Learn and Grow Daycare

2 points

QUESTION 2

A product mix is best described as

a. all products offered by a firm.

b. many products sold by one firm.

c. a group of closely related products that are considered a unit because of market, technical, or end-use considerations.

d. product, distribution, promotion, and price.

e. all products of a particular type.

2 points

QUESTION 3

To make intangible products more tangible or real to the consumer, marketers often

a. use external reference prices.

b. use symbols or cues to help symbolize product benefits.

c. use multiple channels of distribution.

d. offer more support services with such products.

e. use low prices on intangible goods.

2 points

QUESTION 4

The Anderson Advertising Agency was developing a name for their client’s new paper towel product. They finally settled on the name, “Soaker.” Regarding the factors that marketers consider when selecting a brand name, which one does this best fulfill?

a. Keeping the brand name easy to remember

b. Flexibility to be used in various types of media

c. Indicating the product’s major benefits

d. Using fabricated names that cannot be duplicated

e. Compatibility with other products in the line

2 points

QUESTION 5

Sales usually start to decline during the ____ stage of the product life cycle.

a. beginning of the decline

b. end of the growth

c. beginning of the growth

d. beginning of the termination

e. end of the maturity

2 points

QUESTION 6

Which of the following statements about nonprice competition is false?

a. A firm using nonprice competition can build loyalty to both its company and its products.

b. When using nonprice competition, a company should promote the distinguishing characteristics of its brand.

c. Companies that use nonprice competition do not need to keep track of their competitor’s prices.

d. A company must be able to distinguish its brand through some unique feature in order to successfully engage in nonprice competition.

e. Buyers must view the distinguishing characteristics of a product offered through nonprice competition as being important.

2 points

QUESTION 7

Price is considered to be the variable in the marketing mix that is

a. First to be decided.

b. Least flexible.

c. Most difficult.

d. Last to be decided.

e. Most flexible.

2 points

QUESTION 8

One advantage of nonprice competition is that

a. a firm can build customer loyalty.

b. pricing is no longer a factor.

c. market share becomes less important.

d. a firm can react quickly to competitive efforts.

e. marketing efforts are completely eliminated.

2 points

QUESTION 9

Sony management decided to use skimming as a pricing strategy for its newest line of high-definition television (HDTV) sets. It should be aware that this strategy does not

a. provide flexibility in the introductory base price.

b. reduce the stress that may be placed on the firm’s production capabilities.

c. generate capital to cover research and development costs.

d. protect the firm from covering costs if prices are set too low.

e. discourage competitors from entering the market.

2 points

QUESTION 10

When a company that produces computer printers prices them somewhat low, but the ink required to operate the printer is priced higher per relative usage, it is using

a. penetration pricing.

b. captive pricing.

c. a price leader.

d. bait pricing.

e. price lining.

2 points

QUESTION 11

 

Paid personal communication that seeks to inform customers and persuade them to purchase products in an exchange situation is

WKU MKT220 FINAL EXAM FALL 2014 (50 QUESTIONS)

MKT571 WEEK 3 QUIZ

MKT571 WEEK 3 QUIZ

1. Some firms might delay the launch of their products until after the competitor has borne the cost of educating the market. Such an entry is called ________ entry.

compensating

balancing

late

strategic pay off

2. Which of the following is the best example of a new-to-the-world product?

Tata Motors, an Indian automobile company, acquires Jaguar to extend its business

Kids-Med, a company that produces childcare products, launches a non-contact thermometer

Pestorica, a publishing company, decides to launch a new sports magazine

Walmart, the retail giant, opens new stores in an underdeveloped African country

3. Marketers must see themselves as benefit providers. For example, when a shopper purchases new shoes, he or she expects the shoes to cover his or her feet and allow him or her to walk unobstructed. This is an example of what level in the consumer-value hierarchy?

Potential product

Basic product

Pure tangible product

Augmented product

4. Which of the following is the level at which the product’s primary characteristics operate?

Conformance quality

Performance quality

Durability

Design

5. When the physical product cannot be easily differentiated, the key to competitive success may lie in adding valued services and improving their quality. The main service differentiators are ordering ease, delivery, installation, ________, customer consulting, maintenance, and repair.

customer training

technology intensity

adaptability

ease of use

6. Which of the following will most help service providers overcome the limitation of intangibility of services when positioning itself?

Cultivating non-peak demand

Working with larger groups

Sharing services

Using brand symbols

7. Product launches include many tasks and often take longer than expected. To coordinate effectively, a planning technique such as ______ can be used.

key path scheduling

task scheduling planner

critical path scheduling

master scheduling

8. The five product levels constitute a ________. At each level more customer value is added.

customer-value hierarchy

demand chain

value grid

business model

9. Which of the following is most closely related with the organic growth of an organization?

Developing new products from within

Increasing the operational profitability

Increasing productivity of employees

Acquiring a product or service brand

10. Most new-product activities are devoted to

introducing backward integration

changing the target markets

improving existing products

 

changing the existing market dynamics

MKT571 WEEK 3 QUIZ

UOP MKT571 WEEK 4 QUIZ

UOP MKT571 WEEK 4 QUIZ

1. What is a simple way to engage in international marketing?

Licensing

Travel abroad

Communications

Cultural attainment

2. Companies are pursuing which objective when they start with prices high and slowly drop them over time?

Market skimming

Market tactics

Focusing on market share

Market pricing

3. Which strategy uses the manufacturer’s advertising, promotion, and other forms of communication to persuade consumers?

Push strategy

Upward strategy

Pull strategy

Downward strategy

4. What type of distribution places the goods or services in as many outlets as possible?

Exclusive distribution

Marketing distribution

Selective distribution

Intensive distribution

5. Which agreements are not necessarily illegal, but they do violate U. S. law if they tend to lessen competition substantially?

Loosening agreements

Promising agreements

Marketing agreements

Tying agreements

6. What is the practice that allows companies to maximize their market share by believing a higher sales volume will lead to lower unit costs and higher long-run profit while assuming the market price is sensitive?

Market skimming

Target pricing

Sensitive pricing

Market-penetration pricing

7. What type of deal takes place when the seller receives some percentage of the payment in cash and the rest in products?

Compensation deal

Free trade

Offset

Barter

8. What type of marketing channel consists of an independent producer, wholesaler(s), and retailer(s)?

Horizontal marketing system

Conventional marketing system

Vertical marketing system

Rectangular marketing system

9. What takes place when dealers purchase some or all of a product line?

Full-line forcing

Forcing by brand

Half-line forcing

Part-line forcing

10. What mode of entry is it when local and foreign investors share ownership and control?

Direct investment

Joint venture

Foreign investment

 

Sole proprietor

UOP MKT571 WEEK 4 QUIZ

UOP Acct 211 Quiz 1

UOP Acct 211 Quiz 1

1. The rule that requires financial statements to reflect the assumption that the business will continue operating instead of being closed or sold, unless evidence shows that it will not continue, is the:
Going-concern assumption.
Business entity assumption.
Objectivity principle.
Cost Principle.
Monetary unit assumption.
2. A partnership:
Is also called a sole proprietorship.
Has unlimited liability for its partners.
Has to have a written agreement in order to be legal.
Is a legal organization separate from its owners.
Has owners called shareholders.
3. The difference between a company’s assets and its liabilities, or net assets is:
Net income.
Expense.
Equity.
Revenue.
Net loss.
4. Which of the following accounting principles prescribes that a company record its expenses incurred to generate the revenue reported?
Going-concern assumption.
Matching principle.
Cost principle.
Business entity assumption.
Consideration assumption.
5. The primary objective of financial accounting is:
To serve the decision-making needs of internal users.
To provide financial statements to help external users analyze an organization’s activities.
To monitor and control company activities.
To provide information on both the costs and benefits of looking after products and services.
To know what, when, and how much to produce.
6. All of the following are true regarding ethics except:
Ethics are beliefs that separate right from wrong.
Ethics rules are often set for CPAs.
Ethics do not affect the operations or outcome of a company.
Are critical in accounting.
Ethics can be hard to apply.
7. Social responsibility:
Is a concern for the impact of our actions on society.
Is a code that helps in dealing with confidential information.
Is required by the SEC.
Requires that all businesses conduct social audits.
Is limited to large companies.
8. The accounting principle that requires accounting information to be based on actual cost and requires assets and services to be recorded initially at the cash or cash-equivalent amount given in exchange, is the:
Accounting equation.
Cost principle.
Going-concern assumption.
Realization principle.
Business entity assumption.
9. All of the following regarding a Certified Public Accountant are true except:
Must meet education and experience requirements.
Must pass an examination.
Must exhibit ethical character.
May also be a Certified Management Accountant.
Cannot hold any certificate other than a CPA.
10. Decreases in equity that represent costs of assets or services used to earn revenues are called:
Liabilities.
Equity.
Withdrawals.
Expenses.
Owner’s Investment.
11. The record in which transactions are first recorded is the:
Account balance.
Ledger.
Journal.
Trial balance.
Cash account.
12. A collection of all accounts and their balances used by a business is called a:
Journal.
Book of original entry.
General Journal.
Balance column journal.

Ledger.

UOP Acct 211 Quiz 1

Strayer Phil210 week 7 quiz 2

Strayer Phil210 week 7 quiz 2

Question

Question 1

Every member of the Delta Club is over 70 years old. Therefore, the Delta Club must be over 70 years old.

Answer

Ignorance

Composition

Authority

Circular reasoning

5 points

Question 2

The idea that black people in this country live in poverty is ridiculous. Look at Bill Cosby. He’s a millionaire. And so are Denzel Washington and Oprah Winfrey.

Answer

Division

Hasty generalization

False Analogy

Composition

5 points

Question 3

No one has ever proved that the human fetus is not a person with rights. Therefore, abortion is morally wrong.

Answer

Ignorance

Composition

Authority

Circular reasoning

5 points

Question 4

If someone rents a piece of land and plants crops on it, the landlord is never permitted to come and take those crops for himself when harvest time arrives. Similarly, if couples enlist the services of a surrogate mother to provide them with a baby, the mother should never be allowed to welch on the deal and keep the baby for herself once it is born.

Answer

Division

False analogy

Equivocation

No fallacy

5 points

Question 5

The farmers of our state have asked that we introduce legislation to provide subsidies for soybeans. Unfortunately, we will have to turn down their request. If we give subsidies to the soybean farmers, then the corn and wheat growers will ask for the same thing. Then it will be the cotton growers, citrus growers, truck farmers, and cattle raisers. In the end, the cost will be astronomical.

Answer

Authority

Circular reasoning

Genetic

Slippery slope

5 points

Question 6

Terrorists from the Middle East have crossed our borders and traveled through the country at will. Obviously the Immigration Service has not been doing its job.

Answer

Circular reasoning

Post hoc ergo propter hoc

Authority

Slippery slope

5 points

Question 7

Motives and desires exert forces on people, causing them to choose one thing over another. But force is a physical quantity, governed by the laws of physics. Therefore, human choices are governed by the laws of physics.

Answer

Division

False analogy

Equivocation

No fallacy

5 points

Question 8

When a car breaks down so often that repairs become pointless, the car is thrown on the junk heap. Similarly, when a person becomes old and diseased, he or she should be mercifully put to death.

Answer

Division

Hasty generalization

False Analogy

Composition

5 points

Question 9

All persons act in order that they might get pleasure. Even so-called altruistic persons who help others so much that they do almost nothing for themselves get pleasure out of giving. Otherwise, they wouldn’t do it. Suppose a person hits himself over the head with a hammer. He must get pleasure from it, because why else would he do it if he didn’t get pleasure from it?

Answer

Circular reasoning

Composition

Either/Or Fallacy

Post hoc ergo propter hoc

5 points

Question 10

Televangelist Jerry Falwell said that God’s anger with feminism led to the destruction of the World Trade Center. Given Falwell’s closeness to God, we have no alternative than to blame the feminists for this atrocity.

Answer

Ignorance

Composition

Authority

Circular reasoning

5 points

Question 11

Of course animals have rights. Just look at how powerless they are in comparison with modern humans.

Answer

Ignorance

Composition

Authority

Circular reasoning

 

5 points 

Strayer Phil210 week 7 quiz 2

STRAYER BUS430 QUIZ 1

STRAYER BUS430 QUIZ 1

Question 1

Service organizations generally

are in close proximity to the customer

rely on physical inventory

take advantage of patents

can delegate human behavior and marketing skills

Question 2

Which one of the following has the highest goods content?

medicine prescription

computer repair

automobile loan

symphony performance

Question 3

The quality revolution is most related to

continuous improvement

mass production

time-based competition

service

Question 4

A golf simulator in a retail sports store is an example of

non- durable goods replacing services

primary good

goods content

biztainment

 

Question 5

Service management skills would include all of the following except

accounting and finance

knowledge and technical expertise about operations

marketing and cross-selling

human interaction

Question 6

The three issues that are at the core of operations management include all of the following except

cost

quality

utilization

efficiency

Question 7

Which of the following would be the lowest in goods content and highest in service content?

fast food restaurant

attending a theater production

getting an oil change for your car

filling a medical prescription

Question 8

Support processes would typically include all of the following except

inventory management

customer help desk operations

research and development

manufacturing and assembly

 

Question 9

A support process could be any of the following except

assembling automobiles

purchasing materials and supplies

managing inventory

installing a product

Question 10

Which of the following is not a key activity of an operations manager?

translating market knowledge into goods, services, and processes

continually learning and adapting to global and environmental changes

managing cash flows and strategic investments

exploiting technology to improve productivity

Question 11

A value creation process could be any of the following except

Answer

shipping a customer’s order

providing a home mortgage

assembling a dishwasher

purchasing production material

 

Moving to another question will save this response.

STRAYER BUS430 QUIZ 1

Strayer Mkt Quiz 4

Strayer Mkt Quiz 4

Question

Question 1

Questions such as “How often would you buy this product?” and “Which features are of little or no interest to you?” are often proposed during

a) concept testing.

b) product development.

c) screening.

d) idea generation.

e) test marketing.

6 out of 6 points

Correct

Question 2

The main characteristic of a ____ is that customers are satisfied to the point that they use a service repeatedly over a period of time.

a) service relationship

b) professional marketer

c) high-contact service

d) heterogeneous service

e) client-based relationship

6 out of 6 points

Correct

Question 3

Three major ways in which marketers engage in product differentiation are

a) product quality, product design and features, and product support services.

b) product quality, product support services, and packaging.

c) product support services, product design and features, and product positioning.

d) product positioning, product quality, and product management.

e) product positioning, product design and features, and product promotion.

6 out of 6 points

Correct

Question 4

During which stage of new-product development does the firm consider profitability?

a) Idea generation

b) Testing

c) Business analysis

d) Product development

e) Compatibility research

6 out of 6 points

Correct

Question 5

The degree to which the price of a product enhances a customer’s satisfaction with the purchase experience and with the product after the purchase is part of their

a) response.

b) reference.

c) interpretation.

d) price satisfaction.

e) price-consciousness.

6 out of 6 points

Correct

Question 6

What do all of the following have in common: tuition, fee, premium, retainer, dues?

a) They all must be paid in cash.

b) They are forms of exchange similar to, but not identical with, money.

c) They are forms of exchange similar to, but not identical with, barter.

d) They are different terms for the concept of price.

e) They have nothing in common.

6 out of 6 points

Correct

Question 7

When marketers emphasize price as an issue and match or beat the prices of other companies, they are using

a) price competition.

b) nonprice competition.

c) comparative pricing strategies.

d) demand-based pricing.

e) supply-based pricing.

6 out of 6 points

Correct

Question 8

What a price means or what it communicates to customers is called

a) reference.

b) response.

c) interpretation.

d) internalization.

e) signaling.

6 out of 6 points

Correct

Question 9

When a company prices one item in a line low with the intention of selling a higher-priced item in the same line, it is using

a. bait pricing.

b. a price leader.

c. penetration pricing.

d. price lining.

d. captive pricing.

6 out of 6 points

Correct

Question 10

A firm establishes which of the following pricing objectives to maintain or increase its product’s sales in relation to total industry sales?

a. Cash flow

b. Sales potential

c. Product quality

d. Market share

d. Status quo

6 out of 6 points

Correct

Question 11

Price leaders, comparison discounting, and special-event pricing are applications of

a. psychological pricing.

b. professional pricing.

c. product-line pricing.

d. bait-and-switch.

e. promotional pricing.

6 out of 6 points

 

Correct 

Strayer Mkt Quiz 4

Strayer MKT100 week 11 quiz

Strayer MKT100 week 11 quiz

Question

Question 1

Questions such as “How often would you buy this product?” and “Which features are of little or no interest to you?” are often proposed during

a) concept testing.

b) product development.

c) screening.

d) idea generation.

e) test marketing.

6 out of 6 points

Correct

Question 2

The main characteristic of a ____ is that customers are satisfied to the point that they use a service repeatedly over a period of time.

a) service relationship

b) professional marketer

c) high-contact service

d) heterogeneous service

e) client-based relationship

6 out of 6 points

Correct

Question 3

Three major ways in which marketers engage in product differentiation are

a) product quality, product design and features, and product support services.

b) product quality, product support services, and packaging.

c) product support services, product design and features, and product positioning.

d) product positioning, product quality, and product management.

e) product positioning, product design and features, and product promotion.

6 out of 6 points

Correct

Question 4

During which stage of new-product development does the firm consider profitability?

a) Idea generation

b) Testing

c) Business analysis

d) Product development

e) Compatibility research

6 out of 6 points

Correct

Question 5

The degree to which the price of a product enhances a customer’s satisfaction with the purchase experience and with the product after the purchase is part of their

a) response.

b) reference.

c) interpretation.

d) price satisfaction.

e) price-consciousness.

6 out of 6 points

Correct

Question 6

What do all of the following have in common: tuition, fee, premium, retainer, dues?

a) They all must be paid in cash.

b) They are forms of exchange similar to, but not identical with, money.

c) They are forms of exchange similar to, but not identical with, barter.

d) They are different terms for the concept of price.

e) They have nothing in common.

6 out of 6 points

Correct

Question 7

When marketers emphasize price as an issue and match or beat the prices of other companies, they are using

a) price competition.

b) nonprice competition.

c) comparative pricing strategies.

d) demand-based pricing.

e) supply-based pricing.

6 out of 6 points

Correct

Question 8

What a price means or what it communicates to customers is called

a) reference.

b) response.

c) interpretation.

d) internalization.

e) signaling.

6 out of 6 points

Correct

Question 9

When a company prices one item in a line low with the intention of selling a higher-priced item in the same line, it is using

a. bait pricing.

b. a price leader.

c. penetration pricing.

d. price lining.

d. captive pricing.

6 out of 6 points

Correct

Question 10

A firm establishes which of the following pricing objectives to maintain or increase its product’s sales in relation to total industry sales?

a. Cash flow

b. Sales potential

c. Product quality

d. Market share

d. Status quo

6 out of 6 points

Correct

Question 11

Price leaders, comparison discounting, and special-event pricing are applications of

a. psychological pricing.

b. professional pricing.

c. product-line pricing.

d. bait-and-switch.

e. promotional pricing.

6 out of 6 points

 

Correct 

Strayer MKT100 week 11 quiz

Strayer LEG320 Week 5 Quiz

Strayer LEG320 Week 5 Quiz

CHAPTER 8

CRIMINAL PUNISHMENTS

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The Sixth Amendment requires that factual findings made for the purpose of enhancing a sentence must be made by a

a. jury

b. judge

c. prosecuting attorney

d. defense attorney

2. In Ring v. Arizona,536 U.S. 584 (2002), the Court held that a state capital sentencing procedure that permitted the sentencing judge to make the factual determination of the aggravating and mitigating circumstances present

a. violated the Sixth Amendment’s right of trial by jury

b. violated the Sixth Amendment’s right of trial by judge

c. violated the Sixth Amendment’s right to a speedy trial

d. violated the Eight Amendment’s right to freedom from cruel and unusual punishment

3. In Blakely v. Washington, the Supreme Court held the sentence was invalid under the Sixth Amendment, because the defendant was entitled to a jury trial on the facts supporting the finding that he acted with

a. deliberate cruelty

b. deliberate indifference

c. deliberate apathy

d. deliberate malice

4. In Booker,the Court held that under the holdings of Apprendiand Blakeley,the Federal Sentencing Guidelines violated the Sixth Amendment’s right to

a. jury trials in criminal cases

b. speedy trials in criminal cases

c. fair trials in criminal cases

d. an attorney in criminal cases

5. The Federal Sentencing Guidelines are

a. no longer mandatory

b. no longer discretionary

c. no longer applicable

d. no longer fair

6. The name given to the test used to determine whether a sentence constitutes cruel and unusual punishment is

a. balancing

b. scales of justice

c. proportionality

d. moderation

7. In the 1972 case of Furman v. Georgia,death penalty laws in all states were struck down as

a. “arbitrary and capricious” by the U.S. Supreme Court

b. “arbitrary and changeable” by the U.S. Supreme Court

c. “random and capricious” by the U.S. Supreme Court

d. “arbitrary and illogical” by the U.S. Supreme Court

8. In Ingraham v. Wright, the Supreme Court considered the relationship between the cruel and unusual punishment clause and the use of corporal punishment in

a. public schools

b. prisons

c. the work place

 

d. private schools

Strayer LEG320 Week 5 Quiz

Strayer MKT 100 Week 9 Quiz 3 (latest 2014)

Strayer MKT 100 Week 9 Quiz 3 (latest 2014)

Question 1

People’s needs to grow, develop, and achieve their full potential are referred to by Maslow as ____ needs.

Answer

ego

esteem

self-actualization

social

safety

Question 2

After certain inputs have been selected to reach an individual’s awareness, the next step in the perceptual process is perceptual

Answer

organization.

attention.

retention.

interpretation.

redefinition.

Question 3

Consumers tend to remember information inputs that support their feelings and beliefs and forget inputs that do not. This is known as selective

Answer

exposure.

distortion.

retention.

information.

organization.

Question 4

Changes in an individual’s thought processes and behavior caused by information and experience is called

Answer

learning.

attitude formation.

patronage motives.

personality.

motivation.

Question 5

Business markets are typically divided into four categories. These categories are

Answer

retailers, wholesalers, services, and nonprofit firms.

producer, manufacturer, reseller, and government.

producer, reseller, government, and institutional.

manufacturer, wholesaler, retailer, and services.

reseller, retailer, government, and institutional.

Question 6

Churches, charitable organizations, and private colleges are considered ____ buyers.

Answer

corporate

government

institutional

producer

nonprofit

Question 7

____ is(are) a major threat to the sales success of jointly demanded products.

Answer

Price changes

Shortages

Economic instability

Inventory buildup

Proliferation of brands

Question 8

Inelastic demand simply means that

Answer

buyers will not make a modified rebuy purchase.

demand depends on how many items are purchased.

a price increase or decrease will not significantly change the demand for an item.

when price goes up, demand goes down.

when supply is reduced, the price will increase.

Question 9

The Common Market of the Southern Cone (MERCOSUR) includes countries from

Answer

Africa.

Asia.

Central America.

South America.

the Pacific Islands.

Question 10

The purchase of products from a foreign source is called

Answer

exporting.

dumping.

importing.

licensing.

 

venturing.

Strayer MKT 100 Week 9 Quiz 3 (latest 2014)

Strayer FIN540 Week 5 Midterm Exam

Strayer FIN540 Week 5 Midterm Exam

TRUE/FALSE

1. If its managers make a tender offer and buy all shares that were not held by the management team, this is called a private placement.

a. True

b. False

2. Going public establishes a market value for the firm’s stock, and it also ensures that a liquid market will continue to exist for the firm’s shares. This is especially true for small firms that are not widely followed by security analysts.

a. True

b. False

3. The cost of meeting SEC and possibly additional state reporting requirements regarding disclosure of financial information, the danger of losing control, and the possibility of an inactive market and an attendant low stock price are potential disadvantages of going public.

a. True

b. False

4. The term “leaving money on the table” refers to the situation where an investment banking house makes a very low bid for the right to underwrite a firm’s new stock offering. The banker is, in effect, “buying the job” with the low bid and thus not getting all the money his firm would normally earn on the job.

a. True

b. False

5. Whereas commercial banks take deposits from some customers and make loans to other customers, the principal activities of investment banks are (1) to help firms issue new stock and bonds and (2) to give firms advice with regard to mergers and other financial matters. However, financial corporations often own and operate subsidiaries that operate as commercial banks and others that are investment banks. This was not true some years ago, when the two types of banks were required by law to be completely independent of one another.

a. True

b. False

6. The term “equity carve-out” refers to the situation where a firm’s managers give themselves the right to purchase new stock at a price far below the going market price. Since this dilutes the value of the public stockholders, it “carves out” some of their value.

a. True

b. False

7. Suppose a company issued 30-year bonds 4 years ago, when the yield curve was inverted. Since then long-term rates (10 years or longer) have remained constant, but the yield curve has resumed its normal upward slope. Under such conditions, a bond refunding would almost certainly be profitable.

a. True

b. False

8. The appropriate discount rate to use when analyzing a refunding decision is the after-tax cost of new debt, in part because there is relatively little risk of not realizing the interest savings.

a. True

b. False

9. If the firm uses the after-tax cost of new debt as the discount rate when analyzing a refunding decision, and if the NPV of refunding is positive, then the value of the firm will be maximized if it immediately calls the outstanding debt and replaces it with an issue that has a lower coupon rate.

a. True

b. False

10. When a firm refunds a debt issue, the firm’s stockholders gain and its bondholders lose. This points out the risk of a call provision to bondholders and explains why a non-callable bond will typically command a higher price than an otherwise similar callable bond.

a. True

b. False

MULTIPLE CHOICE

11. Which of the following is generally NOT true and an advantage of going public?

a.       Increases the liquidity of the firm’s stock.

b.      Makes it easier to obtain new equity capital.

c.       Establishes a market value for the firm.

d.      Makes it easier for owner-managers to engage in profitable self-dealings.

e.       Facilitates stockholder diversification.

12. Which of the following statements about listing on a stock exchange is most CORRECT?

a.       Any firm can be listed on the NYSE as long as it pays the listing fee.

b.      Listing provides a company with some “free” advertising, and it may enhance the firm’s prestige and help it do more business.

c.       Listing reduces the reporting requirements for firms, because listed firms file reports with the exchange rather than with the SEC.

d.      The OTC is the second largest market for listed stock, and it is exceeded only by the NYSE.

e.       Listing is a decision of more significance to a firm than going public.

Strayer FIN540 Week 5 Midterm Exam

STRAYER HUM111 WEEK 2 QUIZ 1 FALL 2015

STRAYER HUM111 WEEK 2 QUIZ 1 FALL 2015

Question 1

4 out of 4 points

Correct

According to our text, what did the Hebrews believe their status as “chosen people” meant?

Question 2

4 out of 4 points

Correct

Which of the following pairs correctly identifies the subjects illustrated on the Royal Standard of Ur?

Question 3

4 out of 4 points

Correct

How did the Mesopotamians view human society?

Answer

Question 4

4 out of 4 points

Correct

What classic struggle do Gilgamesh and Enkidu represent?

Answer

Question 5

4 out of 4 points

Correct

What about the Royal Standard of Ur illustrates social perspective or hierarchy of scale?

Answer

Question 6

4 out of 4 points

Correct

Why did the Egyptians bury their dead on the west side of the Nile?

Answer

Question 7

4 out of 4 points

Correct

Why did the Egyptian sculptors idealize rulers in their sculptures?

Answer

Question 8

4 out of 4 points

Correct

What radical change in Egyptian religion did Amenhotep IV (Akhenaten) decree?

Answer

Question 9

4 out of 4 points

Correct

What creature, part crocodile, part lion, and part hippopotamus, would devour the unworthy deceased at the final judgment?

Answer

Question 10

4 out of 4 points

Correct

Why is Nebamun Hunting Birds a sort of visual pun?

Answer

STRAYER HUM111 WEEK 2 QUIZ 1 FALL 2015

Strayer FIn100 week 5 quiz 3

Strayer FIn100 week 5 quiz 3

1. Which of the following will only be executed if the order’s price conditions are met?

An unlimited order

A trade

A limit order

A spread

2. A 5.5 percent corporate coupon bond is callable in four years for a call premium of one year of coupon payments. Assuming a par value of $1,000, what is the price paid to the bondholder if the issuer calls the bond? (Assume annual interest payments.)

$220

$1,055

$1,000

$55

3. Which of the following terms is the chance that the bond issuer will not be able to make timely payments?

Interest rate risk

Liquidity of interest rate risk

Term structure of interest rates

Credit quality risk

4. Which of the following is a true statement?

If interest rates fall, corporate bonds will have decreasing values.

If interest rates fall, U.S. Treasury bonds will have decreasing values.

If interest rates fall, no bonds will enjoy rising values.

If interest rates fall, all bonds will enjoy rising values.

5. At your discount brokerage firm, it costs $9.95 per stock trade. How much money do you need to buy 100 shares of Ralph Lauren (RL), which trades at $85.13?

$8,522.95

$8,503.00

$9,508.00

$8,503.05

6. As residual claimants, which of these investors claim any cash flows to the firm that remain after the firm pays all other claims?

Common stockholders

Preferred stockholders

Creditors

Bondholders

7. You would like to sell 100 shares of Pfizer, Inc. (PFE). The current bid and ask quotes are $27.22 and $27.25, respectively. You place a limit sell-order at $27.24. If the trade executes, how much money do you receive from the buyer?

$5,446.00

$2,724.00

$2,725.00

$2,722.00

8. A fast growing firm recently paid a dividend of $0.50 per share. The dividend is expected to increase at a 25 percent rate for the next 3 years. Afterwards, a more stable 12 percent growth rate can be assumed. If a 15 percent discount rate is appropriate for this stock, what is its value?

$22.62

$5.00

$36.46

$25.75

9. Consider the following three bond quotes; a Treasury note quoted at 87:25, and a corporate bond quoted at 102.42, and a municipal bond quoted at 101.45. If the Treasury and corporate bonds have a par value of $1,000 and the municipal bond has a par value of $5,000, what is the price of these three bonds in dollars?

$877.81, $1,024.20, $5,072.50, respectively

$872.50, $1,000, $1,000, respectively

$1000, $1,000, $1,000, respectively

$1,000, $1,024.20, $1,001.45, respectively

10. Which of the following terms is a comparison of market yields on securities, assuming all characteristics except maturity are the same?

Credit quality risk

Liquidity of interest rate risk 

Term structure of interest rates

Interest rate risk

11. Which of the following is a legal contract that outlines the precise terms between the issuer and the bondholder?

Debenture

Enforcement codes

Prospectus      

Indenture

12. Which of the following is a debt security whose payments originate from other loans, such as credit card debt, auto loans, and home equity loans?

Credit quality securities

Junk bonds

Asset-backed securities

Debentures

13.The Dow Jones Industrial Average (DJIA) includes:

500 firms that are the largest in their respective economic sectors.

all of the stock listed on the New York Stock Exchange.

30 of the largest (market capitalization) and most active companies in the U.S. economy.

 

500 firms that are the largest as ranked by Fortune Magazine.

Strayer FIn100 week 5 quiz 3

Strayer FIn100 week 6 quiz

Strayer FIn100 week 6 quiz

1. Which of these is a measure summarizing the overall past performance of an investment?

Average return

Dollar return

Market return 

Percentage return

2. Which of the following is the reward investors require for taking risk?

Market risk premium

Required return

Risk-free rate

Risk premium

3. Which of the following is defined as the volatility of an investment, which includes firm specific risk as well as market risk?

Market risk

Total risk

Diversifiable risk

Standard deviation

4. Which of these is the set of probabilities for all possible occurrences?

Market probabilities

Probability distribution

Probability

Stock market bubble

5. Which of these is the investor’s combination of securities that achieves the highest expected return for a given risk level?

Efficient portfolio

Total portfolio

Optimal portfolio

Modern portfolio

6. To find the percentage return of an investment:

divide the dollar return by the investment’s value at the beginning of the period.

multiply the dollar return by the investment’s value at the beginning of the period.

multiply the dollar return by the investment’s value at the end of the period.

divide the dollar return by the investment’s value at the end of the period.

7. Which of the following is an index that tracks 500 companies, which allows for a great deal of diversification?

Fortune 500

Wall Street Journal

Nasdaq

S&P 500

8. Which of these is the line on a graph of return and risk (standard deviation) from the risk-free rate through the market portfolio?

Efficient market line

Capital market line

Efficient market hypothesis

Capital asset pricing line

9. Which of the following is a model that includes an equation that relates a stock’s required return to an appropriate risk premium?

Efficient markets

Beta

Behavioral finance

Asset pricing

10. Which of the following is data that includes past stock prices and volume, financial statements, corporate news, analyst opinions, etc.?

Generally accepted accounting principles

Public information

Privately held information

Audited financial statements

11. Which of the following are the stocks of small companies that are priced below $1 per share?

Penny stocks

Hedge fund stocks

Bargain stocks

 

Stock market bubble stocks

Strayer FIn100 week 6 quiz

Strayer Fin100 week 3 quiz (100% Answer)

Strayer Fin100 week 3 quiz (100% Answer)

Question 1

1. The holding-company device to control two or more commercial banks:

Answer

has diminished in importance in recent years

has increased in importance in recent years

is limited to state chartered banks

is sometimes described as chain banking

2 points

Question 2

The Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation Improvement Act of 1991:

Answer

transferred the reserves and functions of the Federal Savings and Loan Insurance Corporation to the FDIC

required that failed banks be handled in such a way as to provide the lowest cost to the FDIC

increased federal deposit insurance from $40,000 to $100,000 for each account

extended federal deposit insurance to S&L depositors

2 points

Question 3

The Monetary Control Act:

Answer

extended the Fed’s control to thrift institutions and non-member commercial banks

has resulted in more competition among depository institutions

increased federal deposit insurance from $40,000 to $80,000 for each account

established minimum capital requirements for banks with federal charters

2 points

Question 4

The item on the assets side of a bank’s balance sheet that represents the largest proportion of bank assets is:

Answer

Deposits

owner’s capital           

securities

loans

2 points

Question 5

The item on the liabilities and equity section of a bank’s balance sheet that represents the largest proportion of a typical bank’s assets is:

Answer

deposits

owner’s capital

securities

federal funds

2 points

Question 6

The item on the liabilities and equity section of a bank’s balance sheet that represents the smallest proportion of bank’s assets is:

Answer

deposits

owner’s capital

securities

federal funds

2 points

Question 7

An organization that sells or markets new securities issued by businesses to individuals and institutional investors is called a (n)

Answer

mutual fund

investment bank

insurance company

brokerage firm

2 points 

Question 8

The primary purpose of this Act was to aid the savings and loan industry

Answer

Garn–St. Germain Depository Institutions Act

Glass-Steagall Act

Hunt Commission legislation

Depository Institutions Deregulation and Monetary Control Act                 

2 points

Question 9

An organization that sells shares in their firms to individuals and others and invests the proceeds in corporate and government securities is called a (n)

Answer

investment company

investment bank

insurance company

brokerage firm

2 points

Question 10

An organization that received contributions from employees and/or their employers and invests the proceeds on behalf of the employees for use during their retirement years is called a (n)

Answer

mutual fund

savings bank

pension fund

retirement fund

2 points

Question 11

The __________________, passed in 1968, requires the clear explanation of consumer credit costs and garnishment procedures (taking wages or property by legal means) and prohibits overly high-priced credit transactions.

Answer

Consumer Credit Expansion Act

Credit Growth Act

Consumer Credit Protection Act

Consumer Safety Act

 

2 points

Strayer Fin100 week 3 quiz (100% Answer)

STRAYER FIN 100 Quiz 1 ( 2014 )

STRAYER FIN 100 Quiz 1 ( 2014 )

Question 1

Finance has its origins in:

Answer 

a. economics and statistics

b. accounting and sociology

c. accounting and economics

d. psychology and mathematics

Question 2

Successful businesses typically progress through a series of life-cycle stages—from the idea stage to exiting the business; these five stages include the:

Answer 

a. development stage, startup stage, survival stage, rapid growth stage, and maturity stage. 

b. idea stage, design stage, operating stage, rebuilding stage, and decline stage

c. development stage, operating stage, rebuilding stage, rapid growth stage, and maturity stage

d. idea stage, startup stage, rapid growth stage, survival stage, and decline stage

Question 3

The theory of ___________________ implies that information is quickly embedded in prices making it difficult for investors to “beat the market.”

Answer 

a. stock investing

b. efficient markets

c. portfolio management

d. asset allocation

e. none of the above

Question 4

Two risk assets can be combined to lower the overall risk of a portfolio. This principle is commonly referred to as

Answer 

a.  blending

b.  asset allocation

c.  diversification

d.  portfolio segmentation

e.  none of the above

Question 5

____________________ provide the record-keeping mechanism for showing ownership of the financial instruments used in the flow of financial funds between savers and borrowers and record revenues, expenses, and profitability of organizations that produce and exchange goods and services.

Answer 

a. Financial Managers

b. Accountants

c. Operations Managers

d. Statisticians

e. none of the above

Question 6

Maximizing _____________________ is accomplished through effective financial planning and analysis, asset management, and the acquisition of financial capital.

Answer 

a.  the value of perquisites.

b.  the owners’ wealth.

c.  the firm’s profits

d.  the firm’s earnings

e. none of the above

Question 7

Finance is:

Answer 

a. the study of how individuals, institutions, governments, and businesses acquire, spend, and manage money and other financial assets

b. the study of how businesses acquire, spend, and manage money and other financial assets

c. the study of how governments, and businesses acquire, spend, and manage money and other financial assets

d. none of the above

Question 8

______________ is the study of how individuals prepare for financial emergencies, protect against premature death and the loss of property, and accumulate wealth over time.

Answer 

a. Personal finance

b. Corporate finance

c. Entrepreneurial finance

d. Investment banking

e. none of the above

Question 9

The primary securities markets are

Answer 

a. the markets for previously issued securities such as the New York Stock Exchange

b. the markets where financial assets such as stocks and bonds are initially issued

c. the three most important financial markets in any economy

d. the markets for stocks and bonds only

Question 10

The primary goal of the financial manager of a profit-seeking organization is to:

Answer 

a. maximize market share

b. maximize the owners’ wealth

c. increase sales and profit

d. have healthy cash flow

Question 11

______________________ is the sum of an individual’s money, real assets, and financial assets or claims against others less the individual’s debt obligations.

STRAYER FIN 100 Quiz 1 ( 2014 )

Strayer FIn100 week 2 quiz (A++++ answer)

Strayer FIn100 week 2 quiz (A++++ answer)

Question 1

1. A basic requirement for an effective financial system is a monetary system that performs which of the following financial functions?

Answer

formation and transferring of money

storing gold and silver to back up money

creating jobs

transferring real assets

2 points

Question 2

____________________ in business involves making decisions relating to the efficient use of financial resources in the production and sale of goods and services.

Answer

Financial management

Financial economics

Investment management

Asset allocation

2 points

Question 3

An area of finance that refers to the physical locations or electronic forums that facilitate the flow of funds among investors, businesses, and governments is called:

Answer

financial management

investments

financial institutions

financial markets

2 points

Question 4

The financial environment:

Answer

encompasses the financial markets and global interactions that contribute to an efficiently operating economy.

encompasses the financial institutions and financial markets that contribute to an efficiently operating economy.

encompasses the financial system, financial institutions, financial markets, business firms, individuals, and global interactions that contribute to an efficiently operating economy.

none of the above.

2 points

Question 5

The theory of ___________________ implies that information is quickly embedded in prices making it difficult for investors to “beat the market.”

Answer

stock investing

efficient markets

portfolio management

asset allocation

2 points

Question 6

________________ involves making decisions relating to issuing and investing in stocks and bonds.

Answer

Financial economics

Financial management

Investment management

Asset allocation

2 points

Question 7

The primary goal of the financial manager of a profit-seeking organization is to:

Answer

maximize market share

maximize the owners’ wealth

increase sales and profit

have healthy cash flow

2 points

Question 8

An area of finance that involves the study of organizations or intermediaries that help the financial system operate efficiently and transfer funds from savers and investors to individuals, businesses, and governments that seek to spend or invest the funds in physical assets (inventories, buildings, and equipment) is called:

Answer

financial management

investments

financial institutions

financial markets

2 points

Question 9

____________________ provide the record-keeping mechanism for showing ownership of the financial instruments used in the flow of financial funds between savers and borrowers and record revenues, expenses, and profitability of organizations that produce and exchange goods and services.

Answer

Financial Managers

Accountants

Operations Managers

Statisticians

2 points

Question 10

Rational investors would consider an investment in a risky business venture only if they feel the expected return is high enough to justify the

Answer

greater risk.

higher cost.

longer useful life.

more complex designs.

 

2 points

Strayer FIn100 week 2 quiz (A++++ answer)

Strayer ECO301 week 2 quiz (100% Answer)

Strayer ECO301 week 2 quiz (100% Answer)

Question 1

Let QD= -5P + 54 and QS= P – 6. Equilibrium can be found at

Answer

Question 1

Let QD= -5P + 54 and QS= P – 6. Equilibrium can be found at

Answer

Q = 4; P = 10

Q = 6; P = 10

P = 6; Q = 0

Q =; P = 2

5 points

Question 2

Suppose a production possibilities frontier can be expressed as 9X2+ Y2= 81 what is the opportunity cost of going from 1 unit of X to 2 units of X (in terms of units of Y)?

Answer

a. 45 

b. sqrt of 45 

c. sqrt of 72 – sqrt of 45 

d. 1

5 points

Question 3

The Ricardian notion that of diminishing returns implies that

Answer

As more input is used more output will be made.

As more input is used less output will be made.

As more input is used the increase in output will increase.

As more input is used the increase in output will decrease.

5 points

Question 4

Suppose the equilibrium quantity is

Answer

2

3

4

5

5 points

Question 5

If the production possibilities frontier can be expressed as 4X2+ Y2= 16 then the point X = 1; Y = 4 is

Answer

outside the production possibilities frontier

on the production possibilities frontier

inside the production possibilities frontier

in the wrong quadrant to be on the graph

5 points

Question 6

If society is producing a combination of goods on its production possibilities frontier

Answer

it must be employing all available resources.

it must be growing.

it is using all the available natural resources but may not be using all available labor resources.

Both a and b.

5 points

Question 7

Suppose right (R) and left (L) shoes are only useful if produced in equal proportion and societal happiness is expressed as min(R,L). The contour lines would be

Answer

downward sloping lines                               

upward sloping lines                                     

L-shaped

backward L-shaped

5 points

Question 8

IfY=X2+Z2, the contour lines

Answer

are concentric circles.

are parabolas.

are hyperbolas.

intersect whenever either X or Z is zero.

5 points

Question 9

Suppose you can write generic supply and demand curves such that QS= A + BP and QD= D + CP. Equilibrium price is given by

Answer

5 points

Question 10

The underlying reason early economists believed a (short-run) supply curve would be upward sloping is because of

Answer

decreasing average costs                              

increasing average cost                                 

decreasing marginal costs

increasing marginal costs

5 points

Question 11

If an individual has a constant MRS of shoes for sneakers of 3/4 (that is, he or she is always willing to give up 3 pairs of sneakers to get 4 pairs of shoes) then, if sneakers and shoes are equally costly, he or she will

Answer

buy only sneakers.

buy only shoes.

spend his or her income equally on sneakers and shoes.

wear sneakers only 3/4 of the time.

5 points

Question 12

Suppose a cup of coffee at the campus coffee shop is $2.50 and a cup of hot tea is $1.25. Suppose a student’s beverage budget is $20 per week. What is the algebraic expression of the budget?

Answer

5 points

Strayer ECO301 week 2 quiz (100% Answer)

BSA 375/BSA375 WEEK 2 INDIVIDUAL ASSIGNMENT SERVICE REQUEST- PART 1 PAPER

BSA 375/BSA375 WEEK 2 INDIVIDUAL ASSIGNMENT SERVICE REQUEST- PART 1 PAPER

BSA 375/BSA375 WEEK 2 INDIVIDUAL ASSIGNMENT SERVICE REQUEST- PART 1 PAPER

This tutorial contains the Individual Assignment for week 2 of BSA/375 Fundamental of Bussiness System Development class.

Analyze HR System Paper – Part 1 (Individual Assignment)

Complete the first section of the final paper due in Week Four. Using the Service Request SR-rm-004, “Analyze HR System,” prepare a 1400 to 2100 word portion that accomplishes the following:

Describe the information-gathering techniques and design methods you would propose to use for the project. 

Identify the key factors that will help ensure the information required for the project is gathered successfully.

Explain the scope and feasibility of the project.

Cite and discuss 3-4 references, in addition to the required readings, that are relevant to the assignment. Be sure to include citations and references using the University of Phoenix approved style guide format.  Note that these should be from strong sources, not those like Wikipedia and other such sources.  These should also be outside the course text.  I expect you to do research for these, not just reference the readings.  You should have references to any material you use, regardless of the source, but you must have at least 3 to 4 solid references from good outside sources.

You should put all your findings into the form of a full APA paper. Your introduction should preview the content in the paper at a high level and your conclusion should summarize the findings of the paper. The body should go into all the elements required by the assignment.

 

This portion of the paper should run about 1400 to 2100 words; though I will be grading for how clear, concise and complete you are rather than on the exact number of words used. You should also use section headers to properly mark the different portions of your paper. These should conform to the APA standard. A single paragraph each is the appropriate length for the introduction and conclusion for a paper of this length.

BSA 375/BSA375 WEEK 2 INDIVIDUAL ASSIGNMENT SERVICE REQUEST- PART 1 PAPER

Eco 550 Midterm Exam Part 1 & 2 (50 Questions)

Eco 550 Midterm Exam Part 1 & 2 (50 Questions)

Midterm Exam Part 1

Question 1

Income tax payments are an example of ____.

Answer

implicit costs

explicit costs

normal return on investment

shareholder wealth

Question 2

The primary objective of a for-profit firm is to ___________.

Answer

maximize agency costs

minimize average cost

maximize total revenue

set output where total revenue equals total cost

maximize shareholder value

Question 3

To reduce Agency Problems, executive compensation should be designed to:

Answer

create incentives so that managers act like owners of the firm.

avoid making the executives own shares in the company.

be an increasing function of the firm’s expenses.

be an increasing function of the sales revenue received by the firm.

Question 4

Possible goals of Not-For-Profit (NFP) enterprises include all of the following EXCEPT:

Answer

maximize total costs

maximize output, subject to a breakeven constraint

maximize the happiness of the administrators of the NFP enterprise

maximize the utility of the contributors

Question 5

Economic profit is defined as the difference between revenue and ____.

Answer

explicit cost

total economic cost

implicit cost

shareholder wealth

Question 6

The moral hazard in team production arises from

Answer

poorly designed team membership

lack of proper assignment of individual tasks

disorganization in groups

a conflict between tactically best interest and one’s duty

insufficient experience

Question 7

The primary difference(s) between the standard deviation and the coefficient of variation as measures of risk are:

Answer

the coefficient of variation is easier to compute

the standard deviation is a measure of relative risk whereas the coefficient of variation is a measure of absolute risk

the coefficient of variation is a measure of relative risk whereas the standard deviation is a measure of absolute risk

the standard deviation is rarely used in practice whereas the coefficient of variation is widely used

Question 8

The approximate probability of a value occurring that is greater than one standard deviation from the mean is approximately (assuming a normal distribution)

Answer

68.26%

2.28%

34%

15.87%

Question 9

The ____ is the ratio of ____ to the ____.

Answer

standard deviation; covariance; expected value

coefficient of variation; expected value; standard deviation

correlation coefficient; standard deviation; expected value

coefficient of variation; standard deviation; expected value

Question 10

A change in the level of an economic activity is desirable and should be undertaken as long as the marginal benefits exceed the ____.

Answer

marginal returns

total costs

marginal costs

average costs

average benefits

Question 11

Based on risk-return tradeoffs observable in the financial marketplace, which of the following securities would you expect to offer higher expected returns than corporate bonds?

Answer

U.S. Government bonds

municipal bonds

common stock

commercial paper

Question 12

An closest example of a risk-free security is

Answer

General Motors bonds           

AT&T commercial paper

U.S. Government Treasury bills

San Francisco municipal bonds

an I.O.U. that your cousin promises to pay you $100 in 3 months

Question 13

Marginal revenue (MR) is ____ when total revenue is maximized.

Answer

greater than one

equal to one

less than zero

equal to zero

equal to minus one

Question 14

A price elasticity (ED) of ?1.50 indicates that for a ____ increase in price, quantity demanded will ____ by ____.

Answer

one percent; increase; 1.50 units

one unit; increase; 1.50 units

one percent; decrease; 1.50 percent

one unit; decrease; 1.50 percent

ten percent; increase; fifteen percent

Question 15

If demand were inelastic, then we should immediately:

Answer

cut the price.

keep the price where it is.

go to the Nobel Prize Committee to show we were the first to find an upward sloping demand curve.

stop selling it since it is inelastic.

 

raise the price.

Eco 550 Midterm Exam Part 1 & 2 (50 Questions)